I mean, statutory rape is a matter of legal convention. In many countries (and states), 16 is the legal age of consent. So at least 2 of your examples here would not have been rape in that case. Should geographic location really be pertinent to whether an act is rape?

I agree that ‘some’ baseline needs to be established. In your first example, it was 100% incumbent on that man to refuse sex with you. But claiming all of your experiences here as legitimate ‘rape’ seems to be quite a stretch.

Corporate accountant and former auditor with degrees in philosophy and accounting.

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